changed the Sabbath; he promulgated. - Inclination is their mourning.
one inspired by a recent discussion on the Sabbath. I searched for the
phrase "they changed the Sabbath" in the Tanach. CodeFinder
indicted one occurrence was expected to show up and 2 were actually
found. The shortest skip (as usual) was extendable to "they changed
the Sabbath He promulgated". The main crosses 2 interesting verses
from the surface text.
In the original in Aramaic Hebrews 4:9 literally says: "It is therefore
the duty of the people of God to keep the Sabbath" (Aramaic NT)
But in the KJV (the most revered and used English version) there is
particularly biased and misleading translation of this verse:
Hebrews 4:9: "There remains therefore a rest to the people of God."
Now even if this point is conceded, many will say that the people
of God does not refer to us Gentiles, but the Hebrews.
That argument is misleading as there were many Gentiles living among
the Hebrews, to who this book was supposedly addressed. Furthermore,
when examining history and Biblical prophecy, a great multitude of Europeans
and European-based peoples are descendants of Hebrews (ask Jim he is
the expert here). Lastly, the Old Covenant was given to the Israelites,
not the Hebrews (Israelites are Hebrews but not all Hebrews are necessarily
Israelites, just as not all Semites are necessarily Israelites).
Yet more people will argue (without the slightest suspicion as to why
biased translators tried to conceal the Sabbath in this verse) that
the verse speaks of a rest in Jesus. Firstly, it is clear
from the Aramaic original and even the Greek, that the verse speaks
of the Sabbath. Secondly, dont just believe the KJV that the preceding
verse is speaking of Jesus:
KJV (Hebrews 4:8): For if Jesus had given them rest, then would
he not afterward have spoken of another day.
The Jesus in verse 8, is none other than Joshua, son of
Nun, successor to Moses! A little-known fact is that Jesus and Joshua
are equivalent names (Jesus = Yeshu = Yehoshua = Joshua), so it
is easy to understand how this misunderstanding was made possible.
But if Yeshu can refer to Jesus, Son of Alaha, or Joshua,
son of Nun, how can we be sure either way? Because the Aramaic, unlike
the Greek, leaves no room for another interpretation. In verse 8, this
figure is referred to as "éùåò áø
ðåð", which means Joshua the son of Nun.
We know that Jesus was not the son of Nun (while we do know that Joshua
was, as seen in many verses such as Joshua 1:1), so this verse clearly
speaks of Moses successor.
Lets take look again at this crucial statement in Hebrews 4:9:
Therefore the observing of the Sabbath remains for the people
After reading Hebrews 4:9, it is good to say, If a person is not
a person of God, then they neednt worry about observing
the Sabbath. In fact, they neednt concern themselves with
any part of the Bible. With so many "scholars and academics"
adding to or changing Gods Word to conceal this message of the
Sabbath in Hebrews 4:9, perhaps we should pay attention...
Keeping the Sabbath is one of the 10 commandments:
Exodus 20:10:"But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD your
God: in it you shall not do any work, you, nor your son, nor your daughter,
your manservant, nor your maidservant, nor your cattle, nor your stranger
that is within your gates"
And God even specifies it is "a perpetual (or everlasting) covenant":
Exodus 31:16: "Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the
sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a
17 It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for
in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he
rested, and was refreshed."